Module 70 — Fixed Income Mathematics & Bond Markets
Yield curve construction and bootstrapping, duration and convexity in depth, credit spread analysis, term structure models (Vasicek, CIR, Hull-White), mortgage-backed securities, and the fixed income markets of Pakistan and the Gulf — the quantitative foundation for rates trading, credit analysis, and portfolio management.
Learning Objectives
- Price bonds and derive yield to maturity for any cash flow structure
- Bootstrap a spot rate curve from observable market prices
- Calculate and apply modified duration, DV01, and convexity for portfolio risk management
- Decompose credit spreads using Z-spread and OAS
- Understand the mechanics of mortgage-backed securities and prepayment risk
- Navigate Pakistan PIBs, GoP Ijarah Sukuk, and Gulf fixed income markets
1. Bond Pricing Fundamentals
The Bond Pricing Equation
A bond is simply a series of promised cash flows. Its price is the present value of all future cash flows discounted at the yield to maturity (YTM):
P = C/(1+y) + C/(1+y)² + ... + C/(1+y)ⁿ + F/(1+y)ⁿ
Where:
- P = bond price
- C = coupon payment (= face value × coupon rate / payment frequency)
- y = yield to maturity per period
- n = number of periods
- F = face value (par value)
Key relationships:
- Price and yield move in opposite directions (when yields rise, prices fall)
- A bond trading at par has coupon rate = YTM
- A bond trading at a discount has coupon rate < YTM
- A bond trading at a premium has coupon rate > YTM
Day Count Conventions
Bond prices depend on how interest accrues between coupon dates. Different markets use different conventions:
| Convention | Used In | Calculation |
|---|---|---|
| Actual/365 | UK gilts, Pakistan PIBs | Actual days / 365 |
| Actual/360 | US money markets, most Libor | Actual days / 360 |
| 30/360 | US corporate/agency bonds | Each month = 30 days |
| Actual/Actual (ICMA) | Eurobonds, most government bonds | Actual / actual days in coupon period |
Clean vs dirty price:
- Dirty price (full price): what you actually pay — includes accrued interest
- Clean price (flat price): quoted price — excludes accrued interest
- Dirty price = Clean price + Accrued Interest
Accrued Interest = Face Value × Coupon Rate × (Days Since Last Coupon / Days in Coupon Period)
Pakistan PIBs and Government Securities
Pakistan Investment Bonds (PIBs) are the benchmark government securities:
- Tenors: 3, 5, 7, 10, 15, 20, and 30 years
- Coupon: semi-annual, fixed rate
- Issued via SBP auction (primary market)
- Secondary market: over-the-counter through SBP-approved primary dealers
- Day count: Actual/365
GoP Ijarah Sukuk:
- Islamic alternative to PIBs — Shariah-compliant
- Structure: government sells state assets to SPV, SPV leases back to government
- Return: semi-annual rental payments (equivalent to PIB coupon)
- Eligible for SLR (Statutory Liquidity Requirement) compliance by banks
Gulf fixed income:
- UAE: T-bills and FGS (Federal Government Securities) — AED-denominated
- Saudi Arabia: SAMA bills, government sukuk — SAR-denominated
- Qatar: T-bills, government bonds — QAR-denominated
- All GCC sovereigns also issue in USD internationally
2. Yield Curve Construction
Types of Yield Curves
| Curve Type | Definition | Use |
|---|---|---|
| Par yield curve | YTM on par bonds at each maturity | Most quoted in market |
| Spot (zero) curve | YTM on zero-coupon bonds — no reinvestment risk | Theoretically correct for discounting |
| Forward curve | Implied rates between two future dates | Pricing forward contracts, FRAs |
| Discount factor curve | Present value of PKR 1 at each maturity | Derivatives pricing, swap valuation |
Bootstrapping the Spot Curve
Bootstrapping derives spot rates from observable par bond prices. Starting from the shortest maturity and working forward:
Example with 3 instruments:
-
6-month T-bill: Price = 96.12, YTM = 8.00% → 6-month spot rate = 8.00%
-
1-year bond: Coupon = 8.5%, semi-annual, Price = 100 (at par)
- Uses 6-month spot rate (8.00%) for first coupon
- Solve for 1-year spot rate s₁:
100 = 4.25/(1.04) + 104.25/(1 + s₁)² → s₁ = 8.52% annualized -
18-month bond: Coupon = 9%, Price = 100
- Uses 6-month spot (8.00%) and 1-year spot (8.52%) for first two coupons
- Solve for 18-month spot rate s₁₈
Continue until the full curve is bootstrapped.
Pakistan application: SBP publishes a yield curve based on PIB auction results. Primary dealers bootstrap the spot curve from observed PIB prices across tenors.
Yield Curve Shapes and Their Meaning
| Shape | Description | Implication |
|---|---|---|
| Normal (upward sloping) | Long rates > short rates | Expected growth, inflation rising |
| Inverted | Short rates > long rates | Expected recession — reliable US recession predictor |
| Flat | All maturities similar yield | Transition or uncertainty |
| Humped | Medium term highest | Complex supply/demand dynamics |
Pakistan yield curve: The PKR yield curve has been inverted or humped during high-rate IMF program periods (2019, 2023) as SBP raised the policy rate to 22% while the market expected eventual cuts.
Forward Rates
The forward rate f(t₁, t₂) is the rate implied by spot rates for borrowing/lending between times t₁ and t₂:
(1 + s₂)^t₂ = (1 + s₁)^t₁ × (1 + f(t₁,t₂))^(t₂-t₁)
Intuition: If you can lock in 1-year money at 8% and 2-year money at 9%, the 1-year forward rate one year from now is approximately 10% — the market's best estimate of where 1-year rates will be in 12 months.
3. Duration & Convexity
Macaulay Duration
Macaulay Duration (D_mac) is the weighted average time to receive the bond's cash flows, where weights are the present values of each cash flow as a share of the total bond price:
D_mac = (1/P) × Σ [t × CFₜ / (1+y)ᵗ]
Intuition: If a bond has Macaulay Duration of 4.5 years, the "average" investor gets their money back in 4.5 years. Zero-coupon bonds have duration equal to maturity.
Modified Duration
Modified Duration (D_mod) measures the percentage price change for a 1% change in yield:
D_mod = D_mac / (1 + y/m)
Where m = payment frequency per year.
%ΔP ≈ −D_mod × Δy
Example: A bond with modified duration 6.5 and yield rising 25 bps (0.25%) falls approximately 6.5 × 0.25% = 1.625% in price.
DV01 (Dollar Value of a Basis Point / PVBP)
DV01 = the dollar change in bond value for a 1 basis point (0.01%) change in yield:
DV01 = D_mod × P × 0.0001
DV01 is the primary risk metric for bond traders. A portfolio with DV01 of PKR 500,000 gains/loses PKR 500,000 for every 1bp move in rates.
Portfolio duration: Portfolio DV01 = sum of individual bond DV01s.
Convexity
Duration is a linear approximation. For large yield changes, convexity corrects the estimate:
%ΔP ≈ −D_mod × Δy + (1/2) × Convexity × (Δy)²
Convexity formula:
C = (1/P) × Σ [t(t+1) × CFₜ / (1+y)^(t+2)]
Why convexity matters:
- Positive convexity: bond price rises more (when yields fall) than it falls (when yields rise) — bonds with positive convexity are preferable
- For a given duration, higher convexity is always better — the price behavior is more favorable in both directions
- Callable bonds can have negative convexity at low yields (issuer calls when rates fall, capping upside)
| Bond Type | Convexity | Reason |
|---|---|---|
| Non-callable bond | Positive | Standard price-yield relationship |
| Callable bond | Can be negative | Call option limits price appreciation |
| MBS pass-through | Negative (at low rates) | Prepayment increases as rates fall |
| Zero coupon bond | High positive | All cash flow at maturity, high duration |
4. Credit Spreads
Spread Measures
G-spread (Government spread): The difference between a corporate bond's YTM and the on-the-run government bond YTM at the same maturity. Simple but ignores yield curve shape.
I-spread (Interpolated spread): Spread over the interpolated swap rate (not government). More precise than G-spread for corporate bonds in markets where swaps are the benchmark.
Z-spread (Zero-volatility spread): The constant spread added to every spot rate on the benchmark curve such that the present value of the bond's cash flows equals the market price:
P = Σ CFₜ / (1 + sₜ + Z)ᵗ
Z-spread is better than G-spread because it uses the full spot curve, not just one point. Z-spread = 0 for an on-the-run government bond.
OAS (Option-Adjusted Spread): For bonds with embedded options (callable, putable, MBS), OAS strips out the value of the option:
OAS = Z-spread − Option Cost
For a callable bond: Z-spread > OAS (you're getting paid extra for giving away the call option to the issuer). For a putable bond: OAS > Z-spread (you're paying for the put option).
OAS is the "true" credit spread — what you earn after adjusting for optionality.
Asset swap spread: Spread in an asset swap where the bond's coupons are exchanged for Libor/SOFR + spread. Widely used by credit traders.
CDS (Credit Default Swap) Spreads
A CDS spread is the annual premium paid for protection against default:
- Protection buyer: pays CDS spread annually, receives par in case of default
- Protection seller: receives spread, pays par at default
CDS-bond basis: CDS spread − Bond spread (usually Z-spread or asset swap spread). In theory, the basis should be near zero (cash bond and CDS should be equivalent credit protection). In practice:
- Positive basis: CDS > cash bond — often in stressed markets
- Negative basis: CDS < cash bond — opportunity for negative basis trades
Pakistan credit: Pakistan's CDS spread (USD sovereign) has ranged from 200bps (stable) to 4,000bps (2022 crisis, pre-IMF deal). Corporate CDS does not exist in Pakistan — credit analysis is bilateral with banks.
5. Term Structure Models
Term structure models attempt to describe how short-term interest rates evolve over time.
Vasicek Model
The first analytically tractable model (1977):
dr = κ(θ − r)dt + σdW
- Mean-reverting: rate pulls toward long-run mean θ at speed κ
- Constant volatility σ
- Problem: allows negative interest rates (not realistic in most environments)
- Advantage: closed-form bond pricing formula exists
Calibration to Pakistan data: High mean reversion (κ) and high long-run mean (θ ≈ 12–15%) are needed to fit the PKR curve.
CIR Model (Cox-Ingersoll-Ross, 1985)
dr = κ(θ − r)dt + σ√r dW
- Mean-reverting (same as Vasicek)
- Volatility scales with √r — prevents negative rates (when rates are low, volatility falls)
- Still has closed-form bond pricing
- More realistic than Vasicek for non-negative rate environments
Hull-White Model
dr = [θ(t) − κr]dt + σdW
- θ(t) is a time-varying drift — calibrated to exactly fit the observed yield curve
- Widely used in practice for derivatives pricing because it matches today's term structure perfectly
- Allows negative rates (same as Vasicek)
HJM Framework (Heath-Jarrow-Morton)
Models the entire forward rate curve directly:
df(t,T) = μ(t,T)dt + σ(t,T)dW
HJM shows that under no-arbitrage, the drift μ is determined by the volatility structure σ. The Libor Market Model (LMM/BGM) is the most important HJM model in practice — it models forward rates (caplets) directly and is used to price interest rate exotics (caps, floors, swaptions, Bermudans).
6. Interest Rate Derivatives
Caps and Floors
Cap: A series of call options on the floating rate (caplets). If the floating rate (e.g., 3-month KIBOR) exceeds the strike K, the cap buyer receives the difference. CFOs use caps to limit floating-rate borrowing costs.
Floor: A series of put options on the floating rate (floorlets). If the rate falls below K, the floor buyer receives the difference. Investors holding floating-rate bonds buy floors to protect minimum income.
Collar: Buy a cap + sell a floor — limits the range of floating rate exposure. Reduces hedging cost to zero if cap strike = floor strike (zero-cost collar).
Pricing (Black's formula for caplets):
Caplet value = P(0,T₂) × τ × [F × N(d₁) − K × N(d₂)]
Where F is the forward rate, τ is the accrual period, P(0,T₂) is the discount factor.
Pakistan application: SBP policy rate-linked floating debt (KIBOR + spread). FERROQUANT hedges a PKR 2B floating-rate TFC by buying a KIBOR cap at 15% — if KIBOR exceeds 15%, FERROQUANT receives the excess (conceptually; OTC market in Pakistan is nascent).
Swaptions
A swaption is the option to enter a swap at a future date:
- Payer swaption: Option to PAY fixed / receive floating (equivalent to a call on rates)
- Receiver swaption: Option to RECEIVE fixed / pay floating (equivalent to a put on rates)
Pricing: Black's formula applied to the forward swap rate.
Uses:
- Liability management: locking in the right to issue debt at today's rate environment in the future
- Cancellable swaps: embedded swaption allows early termination
7. Mortgage-Backed Securities
Pass-Through Structure
A mortgage pass-through pools mortgage loans and passes the monthly payments (principal + interest) to investors:
- Originators (banks) create mortgage loans
- Loans are pooled and sold to a GSE (Freddie Mac, Fannie Mae) or private entity
- GSE issues MBS certificates backed by the pool
- Monthly payments from homeowners pass through to MBS holders
Key metrics:
- WAC (Weighted Average Coupon): average coupon of the underlying mortgages
- WAM (Weighted Average Maturity): average remaining term
- MBS coupon = WAC − servicing fee − guarantee fee
Prepayment Risk
Homeowners can prepay their mortgage at any time (refinancing, home sale, extra payments). Prepayment creates reinvestment risk for MBS holders:
- When rates fall, prepayment increases — investors receive principal back when they least want it (must reinvest at lower rates)
- This creates negative convexity for MBS
PSA benchmark: The Public Securities Association prepayment model assumes prepayment rates ramp up over 30 months to 100% PSA (= 6% CPR):
- 200% PSA = twice the standard prepayment speed
- 50% PSA = half the standard speed
CMOs (Collateralized Mortgage Obligations)
CMOs redistribute cash flows from MBS pools into different tranches with different risk/return profiles:
- Sequential pay tranches: Front-pay tranches get all principal first — shorter effective duration
- PAC (Planned Amortization Class): Principal payments according to a fixed schedule within a prepayment band — most predictable, tightest OAS
- Support/companion tranche: Absorbs prepayment variability to protect PAC — wider OAS for more risk
- Interest-only (IO) strip: Receives only interest — value falls when prepayments rise (less interest paid on smaller balance)
- Principal-only (PO) strip: Receives only principal — value rises when prepayments rise (principal returned sooner, discounted at lower rates)
WAL (Weighted Average Life): The weighted average time to return a dollar of principal. More practical than maturity for MBS because principal is returned continuously.
OAS for MBS: OAS strips out the negative convexity (prepayment option value). An MBS with Z-spread of 150bps and prepayment option cost of 60bps has OAS = 90bps.
8. Fixed Income in Pakistan & Gulf Markets
Pakistan Fixed Income Market
| Instrument | Issuer | Maturity | Market |
|---|---|---|---|
| T-bills (MTBs) | Government | 3, 6, 12 months | SBP auction |
| PIBs | Government | 3–30 years | SBP auction + OTC |
| GoP Ijarah Sukuk | Government | 3, 5, 10 years | SBP auction |
| TFCs | Corporates | 3–7 years | Privately placed / PSX |
| Bank certificates | Commercial banks | Short-term | Bank-to-bank |
SBP Monetary Policy Committee: Sets the policy rate (currently 12% as of early 2026, down from 22% peak in 2023). The policy rate anchors the entire yield curve.
SBP OMOs: Open Market Operations — SBP uses repo and reverse repo to manage overnight rates. Repos inject liquidity; reverse repos absorb.
Pakistan institutional buyers:
- Banks: largest buyer — SLR compliance, excess liquidity parking
- Insurance companies: duration matching
- Pension funds: ALM-driven buying
- Mutual funds: fixed income money market funds
Gulf Fixed Income
UAE:
- CBUAE manages liquidity; Dirham pegged to USD → UAE rates shadow US Fed
- ADIB, Emirates NBD, ENBD regularly issue international bonds
- ADNOC, Mubadala: benchmark-level USD issuers
Saudi Arabia:
- Saudi Arabia Debt Management Office (DMO): world-class bond program since 2016
- SAR domestic market + USD international program
- Aramco bonds: among the most liquid EM credits globally
Qatar:
- Qatar Investment Authority (QIA): significant secondary market investor
- QNB: regional benchmark bond issuer
- Qatar sovereign: regular USD and EUR issuance
Gulf rate linkage: All GCC pegged currencies (SAR, AED, QAR, BHD, OMR) track US Fed Funds — Gulf bond markets move almost in lockstep with US Treasuries. This is very different from Pakistan where PKR rates are set independently.
Self-Assessment
-
FERROQUANT Capital holds a PKR 500 million position in a 10-year PIB with:
- Annual coupon: 14%, paid semi-annually
- YTM: 12% annualized
- Modified Duration: 6.8 years
- Convexity: 61
(a) Is the bond trading at a premium or discount? Why? (b) Calculate the DV01 of the position (use approximate price ≈ PKR 113 per PKR 100 face value). (c) If the SBP unexpectedly raises the policy rate by 50bps and the yield rises by 50bps, estimate the price change using both duration alone and duration + convexity. Which is more accurate and why? (d) FERROQUANT wants to hedge this interest rate exposure by shorting PIB futures. If each futures contract has a DV01 of PKR 5,000, how many contracts should FERROQUANT short?
-
You are bootstrapping the PKR spot curve from the following instruments:
- 3-month T-bill: YTM = 11.50%
- 6-month T-bill: YTM = 12.00%
- 1-year PIB (annual coupon 12.5%, trading at par): YTM = 12.50%
- 2-year PIB (annual coupon 13%, trading at par): YTM = 13.00%
(a) What is the 3-month spot rate? 6-month spot rate? (b) Using bootstrapping, derive the 1-year spot rate from the 1-year PIB price. (c) Using the 1-year spot rate from (b), derive the 2-year spot rate from the 2-year PIB price. (d) Calculate the 1-year forward rate one year from now. If actual 1-year rates one year from now are 14%, was the market's forward rate forecast accurate? What might explain the miss?
-
FERROQUANT is analyzing a PKR 5B TFC issued by a Pakistani cement company:
- Maturity: 5 years
- Coupon: KIBOR + 175bps, paid quarterly
- Trading at 98.50 (flat price, % of par)
- Current KIBOR: 12.00%
- 5-year PIB yield: 13.50%
- Assumed flat term structure for simplicity
(a) Calculate the approximate Z-spread for this TFC (hint: treat as a floating-rate bond — Z-spread ≈ yield − benchmark rate + spread above KIBOR). (b) How would you calculate the OAS if the TFC had a call option at par in year 3? Would OAS be higher or lower than Z-spread? (c) FERROQUANT's credit analyst estimates the company has a 3% annual probability of default with 40% recovery. Is the Z-spread adequate compensation for the credit risk? Show your calculation. (d) The TFC is rated A- by PACRA. A comparable listed bond in Turkey (B+ Moody's) trades at 450bps over local government. Does Pakistan's credit spread look cheap or expensive on a cross-market basis? What structural factors might explain the difference?